There is no difficulty here. The previous verse just affirmed that Jesus was morally sinless. Bro. Stone pointed out in reading this verse that the subject of the verse was his moral perfection. But this verse goes on to affirm that he offered for sin. What sin? The bible is clear that Jesus had "sin in the flesh". Sin could not have been condemned in the flesh of Jesus, if it had not existed there. Therefore, there was sin in his flesh. It wasn't a moral sin, something Jesus was guilty of. It was a physical condition. It was his misfortune through Adam that Jesus bore this sin in his flesh. It was not a crime that he should do so. But since it existence was a reality, it required the atoning sacrifice which Jesus made as the High priest for its removal. There is no difficulty with this for anyone who sees the whole complete picture.